A 71-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for severe pain in the chest and back that was abrupt in onset and has persisted for 3 hours. He has no abdominal pain, leg pain, or neurologic symptoms. His medical history is notable for hypertension. Medications are amlodipine and lisinopril.

On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg in both arms, pulse rate is 98/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on ambient air. Cardiac auscultation discloses an S4 gallop but no murmur. Pulmonary examination is normal. Pulses are symmetric and equal in all extremities.

Laboratory studies show a D-dimer level of 1.2 µg/mL (1.2 mg/L) and a serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 μmol/L). Initial serum cardiac troponin I level is not elevated.

Electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Chest radiograph shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette. Chest CT scan with intravenous contrast demonstrates a focal penetrating ulcer in the thoracic descending aorta (shown).

Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?