A 52-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit. He was initially evaluated for severe palpitations 4 months ago. Evaluation at that time included 48-hour ambulatory electrocardiographic monitoring that was significant for frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) and ventricular bigeminy. A stress echocardiogram showed no evidence of ischemia and normal left ventricular function. Cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) imaging demonstrated no evidence of myocardial scarring. He was started on a β-blocker for treatment of PVCs at that time. He now reports continued significant palpitations despite therapy but does not have presyncope, syncope, or chest pain. He has no family history of sudden cardiac death or heart failure. His only medication is metoprolol.
On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse rate is 82/min and irregular, and respiration rate is 12/min. BMI is 34. B-type natriuretic peptide level is mildly elevated.
Electrocardiogram shows frequent monomorphic PVCs but is otherwise normal; the QRS interval on conducted sinus beats is 110 ms. Ambulatory 24-hour electrocardiographic monitoring shows frequent monomorphic PVCs (21% of all beats) and continued frequent ventricular bigeminy. An echocardiogram is significant for mild to moderate global decreased left ventricular function but without regional wall motion abnormalities; ejection fraction is estimated at 40%.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?