A 66-year-old woman is evaluated prior to discharge. She has ischemic cardiomyopathy and was admitted to the hospital 5 days ago for worsening symptoms of heart failure. She skipped taking her diuretics during a recent business trip. Today, she feels well and is able to walk around the ward twice without any symptoms.

This was her first hospitalization in 3 years, although she has skipped her diuretics during other business trips during this time without apparent ill effect. She had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placed 3 years ago. An echocardiogram 1 month ago showed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 15% (stable for the past 6 years). Medications are captopril, metoprolol succinate, digoxin, furosemide, and spironolactone.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg, pulse rate is 56/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. She has no jugular venous distention and no S3. Lungs are clear, and she has no edema.

Electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm, a QRS interval of 90 ms, and Q waves in V1 through V4. There are no changes compared with the admission electrocardiogram recorded 3 years ago.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?