A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 24-hour history of persistent chest pain. He had a non–ST-elevation myocardial infarction 1 week ago that was managed medically with complete symptom recovery. Yesterday, he developed recurrent chest pain that differs from his previous angina pain. The pain is constant but improved when leaning forward and not associated with other symptoms. Medications are low-dose aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, and atorvastatin.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There is no jugular venous distention. The lungs are clear to auscultation. S1 and S2 are normal, and there is no S3 or S4. A two-component friction rub is present at the left lower sternal border, and a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Electrocardiogram shows diffuse, concave upward ST-segment elevations and PR-segment depression most prominent in leads V1 through V6.
Which of the following is the most appropriate primary treatment?