A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for a routine outpatient medical assessment. She was diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect at age 6 months. Evaluation was performed early in life and observation was recommended. She has no symptoms and is taking no medications.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse rate is 70/min and regular, and respiration rate is 15/min. BMI is 28. The estimated central venous pressure is normal. The apical impulse is normal. There is no parasternal impulse. S1 and S2 are masked by a loud holosystolic murmur noted at the left lower sternal border. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.

An electrocardiogram is normal. The heart size is normal on the chest radiograph. An echocardiogram demonstrates normal left ventricular size and function with an ejection fraction of 60%. A membranous ventricular septal defect is noted with a small left-to-right shunt. The right heart chambers and valve function are normal. The estimated pulmonary artery pressure is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?