A 26-year-old woman is evaluated during a visit to establish care. She has noted shortness of breath for the past 18 months that is progressively worsening. She has no significant medical history. She is active and exercises regularly. She takes no medications.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg and pulse rate is 62/min. BMI is 45. Cardiac examination reveals a midsystolic click with a grade 3/6 late systolic murmur heard over the apex and radiating toward the axilla.

Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) shows moderate to severe mitral regurgitation with marked prolapse of the anterior leaflet, normal left ventricular systolic function with an ejection fraction of 55%, and normal chamber sizes; the regurgitant jet is not well visualized.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?