A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for progressive chest pain that began 2 hours ago. She has not had recent surgery or stroke. She takes amlodipine for hypertension.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 154/88 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 88/min. Cardiac and pulmonary examinations are normal.

Initial electrocardiogram shows 2-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V5 with reciprocal ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF. Chest radiograph shows no cardiomegaly and no evidence of pulmonary edema.

The patient is given aspirin, clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin, and a β-blocker. Because the nearest hospital with primary percutaneous coronary intervention capabilities is more than 120 minutes away, she is also given a bolus dose of tenecteplase.

Thirty minutes later, the patient's blood pressure has dropped to 85/58 mm Hg. Her chest pain persists, and she rates the pain as 8 out of 10. Pulmonary crackles are auscultated to the scapulae. Electrocardiogram shows 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V5 with reciprocal ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?