A 78-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department because of a painful right foot. He has a 1-year history of right-sided claudication. Three days ago he developed severe rest pain in the right foot that is starting to subside. He has hypertension and a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a 55-pack-year history of cigarette smoking but stopped 2 years ago. Medications are aspirin, metformin, losartan, and amlodipine.

On physical examination, vital signs are stable. The right foot is cool and pale with slow capillary refill in the nail beds. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibialis pulses are not palpable. Arterial Doppler ultrasound signal over the dorsalis pedis is present but markedly diminished. Sensation of light touch is present but decreased over the dorsum of the right foot.

Laboratory studies are significant for normal complete blood count, electrolytes, and kidney function. Electrocardiogram demonstrates sinus rhythm.

A continuous heparin infusion is started.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?