A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden onset of severe chest, upper abdominal, and back pain of 2 hours' duration. She has not had similar symptoms previously and notes no other symptoms. Medical history is significant for hypertension. She is a current smoker with a 55-pack-year history. Her medications are amlodipine and benazepril.
On physical examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure is 165/100 mm Hg in both arms, pulse rate is 102/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on ambient air. Cardiac auscultation reveals an S4 gallop but no murmurs. Pulmonary examination is normal. Pulses are symmetric and equal in all extremities. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory studies reveal a D-dimer level of 0.8 μg/mL (0.8 mg/L) and a serum creatinine level of 2.4 mg/dL (212 μmol/L) (baseline is <1 mg/dL [88.4 μmol/L]). Initial cardiac troponin T level is 0.4 ng/mL (0.4 μg/L).
Electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Chest radiograph demonstrates an enlarged cardiac silhouette. A magnetic resonance angiography study demonstrates aortic dissection originating distal to the left subclavian artery extending to the aortoiliac bifurcation (maximum diameter 63 mm). Bilateral renal arteries arise from the false lumen.
Treatment with analgesics, a β-blocker, and sodium nitroprusside is started.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?