A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department (ED) for a 3-hour history of dull, substernal chest discomfort. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. He does not smoke cigarettes. Medications are low-dose aspirin, lisinopril, and pravastatin. His younger sister was diagnosed with coronary artery disease at the age of 50 years.

Electrocardiogram obtained upon his arrival to the ED is shown. He is administered aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin. His chest discomfort is relieved within 15 minutes of arrival.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 148/86 mm Hg, pulse rate is 62/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 94% on ambient air. BMI is 28. Cardiac examination is significant only for the presence of a grade 1/6 holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The murmur does not radiate. Lungs are clear. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Initial serum troponin I concentration is 0.94 ng/mL (0.94 µg/L).

Portable chest radiograph demonstrates a normal cardiac silhouette and no evidence of pulmonary edema.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?