A 38-year-old man is evaluated for an insurance physical examination. He has a history of aortic coarctation with an end-to-end anastomosis performed at the age of 3 years. He is asymptomatic, works full time, and performs regular exercise without limitation. He takes chlorthalidone once daily for blood pressure control.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate is 78/min and regular, and respiration rate is 18/min. BMI is 24. The estimated central venous pressure is normal. The apical impulse is normal. The S1 and S2 are normal. An ejection click is noted at the left lower sternal border. A grade 3/6 midpeaking systolic murmur is noted at the second right intercostal space. The femoral pulses are easily palpated, and there is no radial artery–to–femoral artery pulse delay.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the systolic murmur?