A 61-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-month history of progressive aching pain in the left lower extremity; the pain is present during walking and is absent with rest. He has a 30-pack-year history of smoking and quit 1 year ago. His medical history is significant for New York Heart Association functional class II heart failure, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Medications are aspirin, lisinopril, simvastatin, metformin, and metoprolol.

On physical examination, vital signs are stable. BMI is 25. Femoral, popliteal, and foot pulses are diminished. There is no distal ulceration or skin breakdown. The ankle-brachial index is 0.70 on the left and 0.85 on the right.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?