An 82-year-old man was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 48 hours ago after a late presentation with anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. The patient underwent coronary angiography and was found to have an occluded proximal left anterior descending coronary artery but did not undergo an attempt at revascularization at the time of coronary angiography because of his late presentation and symptomatic improvement. Today, he felt faint and lost consciousness while visiting with his family in the CCU. Medications are aspirin, ticagrelor, metoprolol, lisinopril, and atorvastatin.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg and pulse rate is 108/min. Cardiac examination shows tachycardia with a normal S1 and S2, new holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the apex, and a right ventricular heave. Crackles are heard at the bases of both lungs, one third of the way up. He has no lower extremity edema. The remainder of the examination is normal.
Electrocardiogram shows persistent ST-segment elevation and Q waves in leads V1 through V4. Heart rate is 110/min. Emergency transthoracic echocardiogram shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35% with severe anterior-apical akinesis, a small pericardial effusion, and a color flow jet across the ventricular septum, suggestive of left-to-right flow.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?