A 52-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for progressive chest pressure over the past 3 weeks. He has a 35-pack-year history of cigarette smoking. Medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia treated with aspirin, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and pravastatin. His brother had a myocardial infarction at age 48 years.

On physical examination, he is afebrile, blood pressure is 148/82 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min. Cardiac and lung examinations are normal.

Cardiac biomarkers are elevated. Initial electrocardiogram shows 2-mm ST-segment depression in leads I, aVL, and V4 through V6.

He is admitted to the coronary care unit and given aspirin, metoprolol, nitroglycerin paste, and enoxaparin. Over the course of the first 12 hours, his chest pressure worsens, requiring intravenous nitroglycerin infusion. Subsequently, his chest pressure improves and he undergoes coronary angiography.

Coronary angiography is significant for a 70% left main coronary artery stenosis, 80% mid left anterior descending stenosis, and 90% proximal right coronary artery stenosis. Left ventricular ejection fraction is 45% with mild anterior hypokinesis. Mild mitral regurgitation is noted.

He is currently hemodynamically stable and pain free.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?