A 20-year-old man is evaluated for a new scaling rash on the trunk. He had been well until 3 weeks ago when he developed subjective fever for 2 days with cough and rhinitis that resolved without treatment. One week later, he developed a spot on the right shoulder, and now the rash has spread to his entire trunk and proximal extremities. He has not noted any lesions in the genital area. Medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. He is sexually active.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Skin findings are shown.

He has no oral or genital lesions. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?