A 53-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 1-week history of increased swelling, redness, and pain in her lower legs. She has not had trauma to her legs and has not noted any drainage. She has not had fevers and has otherwise felt well. Medical history is significant for heart failure. Medications are ramipril, metoprolol, and furosemide, which she has not been taking recently as she has not had her prescriptions refilled.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The neck veins are prominent. Mild bibasilar crackles are present. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy, and the remainder of the general examination is unremarkable. Skin findings are shown.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?