A 31-year-old woman is evaluated following her recent discovery that she is pregnant at approximately 10 weeks' gestation. Medical history is significant for a prolactinoma diagnosed 2 years ago during an evaluation for amenorrhea. At the time of diagnosis, her serum prolactin level was 184 ng/mL (184 µg/L), and a 1.4-cm pituitary adenoma extending above the sella was detected on MRI without evidence of mass effect. She was treated with bromocriptine with return of regular menses. She discontinued the bromocriptine when she found that she was pregnant. She is currently without symptoms. She does not have new or severe headache. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and her only current medication is a prenatal multivitamin.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Visual fields are full to confrontation, and the remainder of her examination is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?