An 18-year-old woman is evaluated for primary amenorrhea. Her cognitive function is normal, and she is not sexually active. Her personal and family medical history is unremarkable. She takes no medications.

On physical examination, temperature is 36.1 °C (97.0 °F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 16/min; BMI is 20. Her height is 147 cm (58 in). Physical examination and secondary sex characteristics are normal, with Tanner stage IV breast and pubic hair development.

Pregnancy testing is negative. On subsequent laboratory studies estradiol level was undetectable, serum follicle-stimulating hormone level is 72 mU/mL (72 U/L), and serum luteinizing hormone level is 46 mU/mL (46 U/L).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?