A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for amenorrhea, headache, and fatigue. She reports that from the time of menarche until 2.5 years ago, her menses were regular and predictable. Two and a half years ago, her menses became irregular and then stopped completely 6 months ago. She has had a few hot flushes and fatigue. She has noted galactorrhea. She began having headaches 2 years ago. In addition, she notes blurry peripheral vision.

The rest of her medical history is unremarkable. She takes no medications.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 112/72 mm Hg and pulse rate is 68/min. BMI is 21. White milky substance is expressed from her breasts bilaterally. Ocular movements and cranial nerves are intact. There are no stigmata of Cushing disease or acromegaly.

Laboratory studies:

Cortisol 8 AM

16 µg/dL (441.6 nmol/L)

Estradiol

<32 pg/mL (117.4 pmol/L)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

1.1 mU/mL (1.1 U/L)

Luteinizing hormone

0.8 mU/mL (0.8 U/L)

Prolactin

472 ng/mL (472 µg/L)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

1.1 µU/mL (1.1 mU/L)

MRI shows a 2.4-cm pituitary tumor that elevates the optic chiasm and surrounds the left carotid artery.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?