A 55-year-old man is evaluated for abdominal fullness and nausea of 2 weeks' duration. He has no vomiting or fever. One month ago, he was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He reports an unintentional weight loss of 5 kg (11 lb) over the past month, generalized weakness, and poor appetite. Metformin is his only medication.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 158/90 mm Hg and pulse rate is 90/min. BMI is 29. His face is round and red. A dorsocervical fat pad is present. His abdomen is distended, but nontender. Violaceous striae measuring 8 to 12 mm wide are noted on his upper arms and abdomen. There is 1+ bilateral lower extremity edema. Multiple ecchymoses and acanthosis nigricans are present.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone | <5 pg/mL (1.1 pmol/L) |
24-Hour urine cortisol excretion | |
Initial measurement | 280 µg/24 h (771.6 nmol/24 h) |
Repeat measurement | 300 µg/24 h (826.7 nmol/24 h) |
Cortisol, serum | 46 µg/dL (1269.6 nmol/L) |
Urine | |
Catecholamines | 40 µg/m2/24 h (236.4 nmol/m2/24 h) |
Metanephrines | 1000 µg/24 h (5070 nmol/24 h) |
CT scan of the abdomen with and without contrast reveals a 5.6-cm heterogeneous right adrenal mass with focal areas of calcifications and hemorrhage. The density of the mass is 50 Hounsfield units, and the contrast washout at 10 minutes is 20%.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's adrenal mass?