A 68-year-old man is seen in follow-up for a recent diagnosis of acromegaly. He presented with chronic fatigue, joint and back pain, and an increase in his shoe size over the past 2 years. Medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications are lisinopril, metformin, and as-needed acetaminophen.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 146/88 mm Hg and pulse rate is 90/min. BMI is 29. He has a prominent brow. Macroglossia is present. Lung and heart examinations are unremarkable. Musculoskeletal examination reveals large hands and knees with bone swelling and crepitus. Skin is thickened, and there is excessive perspiration. On neurologic examination, bitemporal hemianopsia is noted.

Laboratory studies are significant for an elevated serum insulin-like growth factor 1 level of 996 ng/mL (996 µg/L) and serum prolactin level of 42 ng/mL (42 µg/L).

MRI shows a 2.5 × 1.8-cm pituitary macroadenoma that elevates the optic chiasm and appears to envelop the left carotid artery and invade the left cavernous sinus. The optic chiasm is mildly atrophied.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in therapy for this patient?