A 34-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of decreased libido and severe erectile dysfunction, including absence of morning erections. He and his female partner would like to conceive. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and he takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 27. Atrophic testes are noted bilaterally.

Laboratory studies:

Follicle-stimulating hormone

1.2 mU/mL (1.2 U/L)

Luteinizing hormone

0.8 mU/mL (0.8 U/L)

Prolactin

110 ng/mL (110 µg/L)

Morning testosterone (total)

120 ng/dL (4.2 nmol/L)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Normal

MRI of the pituitary reveals a 0.8-cm anterior pituitary mass consistent with an adenoma.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?