A 40-year-old man is evaluated for a 6-month history of intermittent episodes of two to four loose stools per day. When he has diarrhea, he also notices crampy abdominal pain and bloating. He has not had nausea, vomiting, anorexia, fever, melena, hematochezia, recent travel, or any new medications, including antibiotics. He is overweight but has been exercising and watching his diet for the past 6 months, and he has intentionally lost 6.8 kg (15.0 lb). The main change in his diet has been switching to diet soda and using sugar-free sweeteners. He takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The abdomen is obese but soft with normal bowel sounds and no distention or tenderness.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?