A 28-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up for elevated liver chemistry test results, which were performed to assess a 3-month history of fatigue. He has no history of liver disease and has not had abdominal pain or fever. His medical history is significant for a 3-year history of diarrhea.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal; BMI is 24. Spider angiomata and jaundice are absent. Abdominal examination reveals hepatomegaly but no splenomegaly or ascites.

Laboratory studies:

Alanine aminotransferase

75 U/L

Aspartate aminotransferase

87 U/L

Alkaline phosphatase

456 U/L

Total bilirubin

1.2 mg/dL (20.5 µmol/L)

Direct bilirubin

0.4 mg/dL (6.8 µmol/L)

Abdominal CT shows a thickened extrahepatic bile duct but no intrahepatic biliary dilatation and no hepatic or pancreatic mass. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography reveals changes consistent with primary sclerosing cholangitis.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?