A 64-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up after recent abnormal findings on intraoperative liver biopsy. Two days ago he underwent right colon resection for a large villous adenoma with high-grade dysplasia. At the time of surgery, an abnormal-appearing liver was noted and biopsy was performed. His medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and obesity. Medications are metformin and lisinopril. He drinks two cans of beer daily but does not use tobacco.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal; BMI is 38. No jaundice or spider angiomata are noted. Abdominal examination reveals healing laparoscopic scars and hepatomegaly. The spleen is not palpable, and there is no ascites. No peripheral edema is seen.

Laboratory studies:

Complete blood count

Normal

INR

Normal

Alanine aminotransferase

79 U/L

Aspartate aminotransferase

68 U/L

Albumin

Normal

Alkaline phosphatase

126 U/L

Total bilirubin

Normal

Ferritin

389 ng/mL (389 µg/L)

Iron

Normal

Total iron-binding capacity

Normal

Iron saturation

Normal

Liver biopsy demonstrates a mildly active steatohepatitis without fibrosis. An iron stain is negative.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?