A 58-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 2-day history of left lower abdominal discomfort. The pain began insidiously and has gradually progressed. She has felt warm but has not had shaking chills, urinary symptoms such as dysuria or urgency, change in bowel habits, or apparent blood in her stool. She is able to eat and drink normally; however, her appetite is decreased. She has never had symptoms like this before. Her medical history is unremarkable.
On physical examination, temperature is 36.6 °C (97.9 °F), blood pressure is 135/68 mm Hg, pulse rate is 94/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. She appears mildly uncomfortable. Mild left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness is noted, with no fullness or mass, guarding, or rebound tenderness.
Laboratory studies are significant for a hemoglobin level of 11.8 g/dL (118 g/L) and a leukocyte count of 10,800/µL (10.8 × 109/L). Serum electrolyte levels and kidney function studies are normal.
Abdominal CT scan shows inflammation of the sigmoid colon and mesentery consistent with acute diverticulitis; no bowel obstruction or abscess is noted.
In addition to antibiotic therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate management?