A 30-year-old woman is evaluated in an urgent care facility for a 1-day history of rectal bleeding and anal pain associated with a bowel movement. She has a lifelong history of constipation. She is otherwise well and her only medication is a daily laxative.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal; BMI is 27. Upon separating the buttocks, a midline posterior anal fissure is observed. There is no evidence of fresh blood or clots. Topical treatment is provided.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?