A 42-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-month history of two to four loose stools per day and abdominal cramps. He was diagnosed 1 year ago with celiac disease. Until recently, his symptoms responded to a strict gluten-free diet, with resolution of weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and iron deficiency anemia. He has not had fever, melena, or hematochezia. He has not taken any new medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft with normal bowel sounds. There is no distention, tenderness, masses, or organomegaly.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?