A 58-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 1-day history of nausea and pain in the left lower abdomen, which was followed by the onset of several episodes of dark-red rectal bleeding. Her bowel habits were previously normal, and she has not had tenesmus, fecal urgency, constipation, diarrhea, weight change, or previous abdominal pain. She has no history of gastrointestinal bleeding, alcoholism, chronic liver disease, bleeding disorders, or cancer. Other medical problems are hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and peripheral vascular disease. Her medications are chlorthalidone, ramipril, and simvastatin. She continues to smoke 1 pack of cigarettes daily.

On physical examination, temperature is 37.0 °C (98.6 °F), blood pressure is 125/68 mm Hg, pulse rate is 87/min, and respiration rate is 14/min; BMI is 27. Abdominal examination reveals pain in the left lower abdomen with no guarding or rebound. No abdominal masses are noted, and the liver and spleen are not enlarged. Bowel sounds are diminished in frequency, and abdominal distention is noted. Rectal examination identifies a small amount of fresh blood and clots; no external hemorrhoids or anal fissure are noted. Femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses are diminished bilaterally.

Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL (100 g/L), a leukocyte count of 14,000/µL (14 × 109/L), and a platelet count of 215,000/µL (215 × 109/L).

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?