A 38-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-month history of generalized abdominal pain, nonbloody diarrhea, increased flatulence, and bloating following meals. She underwent Roux-en-Y gastric bypass with cholecystectomy 2 years ago for morbid obesity. She has no history of gastrointestinal malignancies or inflammatory bowel disease. Her medications are dicyclomine, loperamide, a multivitamin, and calcium with vitamin D.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 29. Abdominal examination reveals a well-healed midline incision but is otherwise normal.

Laboratory studies, including liver chemistry studies and hemoglobin level, are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?