A 25-year-old woman is evaluated for a 3-day history of diarrhea with four or five loose to watery stools per day. She has had mild to moderate abdominal cramps, intermittent nausea, and muscle aches but no fever, blood in the stool, or vomiting. She has had no recent travel outside her home town and has not recently been exposed to antibiotics. She is otherwise healthy and takes no medications.

On physical examination, temperature is 37.6 °C (99.7 °F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 85/min. She appears mildly ill. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?