A 38-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up after starting therapy for ulcerative colitis. A colonoscopy performed 3 months ago showed moderate colitis extending from the rectum to the proximal transverse colon. He was initially treated with mesalamine without any improvement in his symptoms. On prednisone, 40 mg/d, his symptoms have steadily improved, with cessation of bleeding and a decrease in diarrhea. The dose of prednisone has been tapered to 20 mg/d, and he is now having one to two mostly formed stools per day.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies reveal a normal complete blood count, and the serum thiopurine methyltransferase level is undetectable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate maintenance therapy?