A 63-year-old woman is evaluated in follow-up after a recent diagnosis of collagenous colitis. She initially presented with a 3-month history of watery diarrhea that included 7 to 10 nonbloody bowel movements per day and one or two nocturnal stools. She continues to have crampy abdominal pain and urgency but no fecal incontinence. She has been treated with loperamide, diphenoxylate, and then bismuth subsalicylate for 6 months without any improvement in her symptoms. She takes no other medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?