A 56-year-old woman is evaluated for a painless lump in her right breast that she first noticed 6 weeks ago. She has not had any nipple discharge. She has no history of breast lumps or abnormal mammograms; her last screening mammogram was 8 months ago and was negative. Medical history is unremarkable. She experienced menarche at age 12 years and menopause at age 53 years, and she is gravida 4, para 3. There is no breast, ovarian, or colon cancer in her family history. She takes no medications.
On physical examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 12/min. BMI is 25. Examination of the breasts reveals a firm, nontender, 1-cm mass on the right upper outer quadrant 3 cm from the areolar edge. There is no nipple discharge or skin change, and no supraclavicular or axillary lymphadenopathy.
A mammogram is obtained and is read as benign (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System [BI-RADS] category 1).
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?