A 66-year-old man is evaluated following a multilevel lumbar spine laminectomy and fusion 2 days ago. He tolerated general anesthesia well and had approximately 1200 mL of intraoperative blood loss. Postoperative recovery has been uneventful. He has been fully participating in physical therapy without symptoms of lightheadedness, shortness of breath, or chest pain. His surgical site pain is well controlled and gradually receding. Medical history is notable for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, anemia of chronic disease, and coronary artery disease with placement of a bare metal stent 4 years ago. Medications are carvedilol, atorvastatin, aspirin, and as-needed oxycodone and acetaminophen.

On physical examination, the patient is afebrile. Blood pressure is 140/86 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 60/min. The surgical site is intact with no surrounding erythema, tenderness, or induration. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Laboratory studies are significant for a hemoglobin level of 9.1 g/dL (91 g/L). Prior to surgery, the hemoglobin level was 13.1 g/dL (131 g/L). Leukocyte count and platelet count are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's anemia?