A 78-year-old man is evaluated for low back pain that has worsened over the past 24 hours. The patient has had chronic low back pain localized to the lumbar spine without radiation for many years. He reports no trauma but notes that his low back pain has rapidly increased in intensity and that he now has a “pins and needles” sensation over the inner thighs and intermittent radiation of pain down both legs. Treatment with over-the-counter analgesics and anti-inflammatory agents usually resolves his pain, but these medications have not helped his current symptoms. He has not had fever, chills, or other systemic symptoms. He has had urinary retention but no bowel incontinence. Medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications are hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, and as-needed acetaminophen and naproxen.
On physical examination, temperature is 37.1 °C (98.7 °F), blood pressure is 148/70 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 95/min. BMI is 26. The general medical examination is unremarkable. On musculoskeletal examination, the major lower extremity muscle groups show normal bulk and tone with normal or slightly decreased strength. Neurologic examination shows a decrease in anal tone and saddle anesthesia. The patellar reflexes are normal, but ankle reflexes are absent bilaterally.
MRI of the lumbosacral spine shows vertebral endplate osteophytosis, facet joint hypertrophy, and thickening of the ligamentum flavum resulting in narrowing of the spinal canal at multiple levels but without evidence of mass or hemorrhage.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?