A 29-year-old woman is evaluated for a 2-week history of a tender lump in the left breast. She has not noticed skin changes, swollen glands, or nipple discharge, and there is no history of trauma to the breast. She had a similar problem last year with a breast biopsy that was negative for cancer and was told she has fibrocystic breasts. She takes a monocyclic oral contraceptive and her menses are regular, with her last menstrual period starting 1 week ago. She underwent menarche at age 12 years, and she has never been pregnant. She has no family history of breast cancer.
On physical examination, all vital signs are normal. BMI is 25. Examination of the breasts reveals a 2-cm round, mobile, tender mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. There are no skin changes and no supraclavicular or axillary lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?