A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for right carpal tunnel release to be performed with local anesthesia and mild sedation. Anticipated duration of surgery is less than 1 hour. She is physically active and otherwise feels well with no lightheadedness, weight changes, fatigue, or shortness of breath. She received a living-related kidney transplant 5 years ago for polycystic kidney disease; she also has hypertension. Medications are amlodipine, tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisone, 5 mg/d. She has not had any recent changes in her medications.

On physical examination, she is afebrile. Blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 68/min. Except for paresthesias in the right hand following the distribution of the median nerve, the physical examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a normal basic chemistry panel and kidney function tests.

Which of the following is the most appropriate preoperative management of this patient's glucocorticoid therapy on the day of surgery?