A 46-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-week history of right foot pain. The pain is located near the medial inferior heel without radiation. He describes the pain as sharp and occurring with the first few steps taken after awakening in the morning or after prolonged rest. The pain improves with continued walking. He reports no edema, erythema, or ecchymoses in this area, and he has no history of trauma. Medical history is significant for obesity. He has tried ibuprofen without pain relief.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 35. Strength and sensation in the foot are normal. There is pain on palpation of the medial tubercle of the calcaneus. Pain is also reproduced with passive dorsiflexion of the toes. Pain is not present on palpation of the posterior heel or with tapping inferior to the medial malleolus. There is no atrophy of the heel fat pad. Pes planus is present.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?