A 38-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit. Eight weeks ago, he was diagnosed with a first episode of depression based on symptoms of depressed mood, fatigue, increased sleep, anhedonia, and weight gain. His score on the PHQ-9 was 15 (moderately severe depression). Citalopram, 20 mg/d, was initiated at that time. Six weeks ago, he was tolerating the medication with no significant side effects but without improvement of symptoms; citalopram was therefore increased to the maximum dose of 40 mg/d. Currently, he reports no improvement of his depressive symptoms, and his PHQ-9 score remains 15. He has no suicidal ideation.

On physical examination, the patient has a mildly depressed affect but responds appropriately. Vital signs are normal, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?