A 63-year-old woman is evaluated for a 3-week history of vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as yellowish and malodorous and is accompanied by burning and dyspareunia. She is postmenopausal and is sexually active with a new male partner. Her last Pap smear was 2 years ago and was normal. Medical history is significant for hypertension, and her only medication is hydrochlorothiazide.
On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 12/min. BMI is 26. On pelvic examination, a frothy, yellowish discharge is present in the vaginal vault. The cervix is without lesions, although there is contact bleeding with speculum placement. There is no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal tenderness. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory studies show vaginal pH is 6.0; whiff test is negative. Saline microscopy is shown. Potassium hydroxide microscopy is negative. Testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae is negative.

Treatment with single-dose metronidazole is planned.
Which of the following is the most appropriate additional intervention?