A 58-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of slowly progressive bilateral leg swelling. He notes that the swelling is minimal in the morning and is most pronounced at the end of the day. He reports no calf pain but does note a sensation of heaviness in both legs that is worse at night. He has no dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, or abdominal distention. He uses alcohol socially and is a never-smoker. He works as a police officer. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and he takes no medications.
On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 112/76 mm Hg, pulse rate is 76/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. BMI is 31. There is no elevation in central venous pressure. The lungs are clear. No murmurs or extra heart sounds are noted on cardiac examination. The abdominal examination is normal. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Pitting edema of the lower extremities extends to approximately 3 inches above the ankles. Telangiectasias, reticular veins, and small varicose veins are noted at the ankles bilaterally.
Laboratory studies are significant for normal kidney function and liver chemistry tests; the serum albumin level is 4.0 g/dL (40 g/L). Urinalysis is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic study?