A 53-year-old woman is evaluated for increasing vaginal dryness, itching, and dyspareunia. She notes a slight vaginal discharge, sometimes yellowish, but reports no odor, dysuria, urinary frequency, or abnormal bleeding. She has tried vaginal lubricants, but they offer minimal relief. Intercourse is so uncomfortable that she is avoiding sex, and this is putting a strain on her marriage.
Medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. She is gravida 3, para 2, and has been menopausal since age 51 years. She reports occasional hot flushes, but they do not wake her at night. Her last cervical cancer screening was 2 years ago and was negative.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The general medical examination is unremarkable. Pelvic examination demonstrates pale vaginal mucosa with decreased rugae. There is scant yellow-orange discharge. The cervix appears normal. Bimanual examination is normal with no tenderness or masses.
Vaginal pH is 5.5. Microscopy shows 3 to 5 leukocytes and 2 to 3 erythrocytes/hpf and is negative for clue cells, and a potassium hydroxide preparation is negative for yeast. Whiff test is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?