A 74-year-old woman is seen for preoperative evaluation for arthroscopic repair of a right rotator cuff tear. The pain and weakness significantly limit her activities of daily living and have been unresponsive to acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and physical therapy. Medical history is notable for severe aortic stenosis diagnosed 6 months ago. She reports no cardiac symptoms, and her functional status has not changed in the last 6 months. She does not currently meet criteria for aortic valve replacement. Current medications are acetaminophen and ibuprofen.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 142/78 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 76/min. There is a grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the cardiac base with radiation to the carotid arteries and a diminished S2. Right shoulder findings include supraspinatus muscle weakness, weakness with external rotation, and a positive drop-arm test in the right arm.

An echocardiogram from 6 months ago reveals an ejection fraction of 65% and severe aortic stenosis (aortic valve area: 1 cm2; aortic valve mean gradient: 42 mm Hg; aortic valve peak velocity: 4.1 m/s).

An electrocardiogram from 5 months ago is normal. Treadmill exercise stress testing as part of aortic stenosis evaluation and risk stratification 5 months ago showed the patient achieving 4 metabolic equivalents (METs) and 90% of maximum predicted heart rate; she stopped the test due to knee pain but had normal blood pressure response to exercise and no symptoms or electrocardiographic changes with exercise.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?