A 48-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-month history of bilateral lower extremity edema, mostly of the ankles. The edema does not seem to vary during the day and has been getting progressively worse. He reports no leg pain. He notes no dyspnea, orthopnea, abdominal distention, or constitutional symptoms. He has not had any recent surgical procedures or travel. Medical history is significant for hypertension. His current medications are amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide.

On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 132/76 mm Hg, pulse rate is 76/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. BMI is 28. There is no elevation in central venous pressure. The lungs are clear. No extra heart sounds or murmurs are noted. The abdomen shows no hepatomegaly, shifting dullness, fluid wave, or bulging flanks. No inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. There is pitting edema to the level of the ankles bilaterally.

Laboratory studies are significant for normal liver chemistry and kidney function tests; the serum albumin level is 4.1 g/dL (41 g/L). Urinalysis is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?