A 35-year-old woman is evaluated in follow-up after treatment of her fourth episode of vulvovaginal candidiasis within the past year. Her usual symptoms include a thick, white vaginal discharge associated with severe itching, burning, and dyspareunia. Her last episode was 2 weeks ago and was treated with a single dose of oral fluconazole with complete resolution of symptoms. However, she wishes to discuss her options for avoiding future infections. Medical and gynecologic histories are otherwise unremarkable, and she takes no medications. She has one male sexual partner and uses an oral contraceptive.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 24. The general medical and gynecologic examinations are unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation to decrease recurrent infections?