A 48-year-old woman is evaluated during a routine gynecologic examination. Menstruation is generally regular; her last period was 3 weeks ago. She has had no abnormal bleeding or discharge and no dysuria. She is gravida 2, para 2. She has no history of sexual trauma or pelvic surgery.

When asked an open-ended screening question about sexual concerns, she hesitantly admits that she has been having a hard time in her marriage because she has lost interest in sex over the past 2 years. She engages in sexual activity to keep her partner happy but she does not enjoy intercourse. She has been increasingly avoiding sexual intimacy, and this has become a source of friction in her marriage. She uses a lubricant for intercourse, which has been adequate for reducing discomfort.

Results of the physical examination, including the pelvic examination, are unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?