A 52-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit for chronic back pain due to spinal injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident 1 year ago. He underwent spinal stabilization surgery at the time of the accident and has experienced significant pain since recovery. His pain has not responded to appropriate trials of nonopioid pain medications, glucocorticoid injections, and physical therapy. Repeat orthopedic and neurosurgical evaluations indicate that no additional surgical interventions are indicated. He attended an intensive, multimodal pain rehabilitation program and continues to practice mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques. He exercises daily in the form of swimming. Although these interventions have helped to some degree, he remains functionally impaired due to his pain. He fears he will lose his job as a computer programmer due to his inability to sit in a chair all day. The patient has been reliable and engaged.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The general physical examination is unremarkable except for postsurgical changes in the back. The neurologic examination is normal.
The patient scores in the low-risk category for opioid therapy on DIRE (Diagnosis, Intractability, Risk, and Efficacy) risk assessment. Baseline screening urine drug testing is negative. The patient and physician both sign an opioid treatment agreement, and the patient is started on long-term opioid therapy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method for monitoring the patient's opioid therapy?