A 60-year-old man is evaluated for urinary frequency of several years' duration. His symptoms have worsened over the past 6 to 12 months, and he notes several episodes of nocturia over the past 3 months. He reports no fever or dysuria. Medical history is notable for hypertension, and his only medication is amlodipine; he takes no over-the-counter medications.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 64/min. BMI is 30. There is no evidence of suprapubic bladder distention. The prostate is diffusely enlarged, firm, and nontender without nodules. The penis appears normal. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?