A 32-year-old woman is evaluated during a follow-up visit for treatment of depression. She presented 3 months ago with depressed mood, decreased energy, increased sleep, and anhedonia but without suicidal ideation. Her PHQ-9 score was 13, indicating moderate depression. Citalopram, 20 mg/d, was initiated and titrated upward to 40 mg/d 6 weeks ago. She notes improved mood, energy, and sleep with a 6-point improvement in her PHQ-9 score. However, she reports persistent nausea and heartburn coupled with complete anorgasmia while taking this medication. Her medical history is notable for being overweight but is otherwise unremarkable. She takes no other medications.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg. BMI is 29. Examination of the heart reveals physiologic splitting of the S2. The abdomen is soft and nontender with normal bowel sounds. The remainder of the examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative antidepressant to recommend for this patient?